The term "Antichrist" carries enough rhetorical force that it's not exaggerating to say it has shaped human history. But do we really understand what the author of 1 John intended to call to mind when he coined the phrase?
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The term "Antichrist" carries enough rhetorical force that it's not exaggerating to say it has shaped human history. But do we really understand what the author of 1 John intended to call to mind when he coined the phrase?
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